A population will not exist in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium if : …[AIPMT 2015]
50%
a) the population is large
25%
b) individuals mate selectively
25%
c) there are no mutations
0%
d) there is no migration
Q.2.
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird ? …[AIPMT-2016]
25%
a) Dorsal fin of a Shark
50%
b) Wing of a Moth
0%
c) Hind limb of Rabbit
25%
d) Flipper of Whale
Q.3.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :- …[AIPMT-2016] (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and pres umably anaerobes. (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?
33%
a) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
33%
b) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
33%
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
0%
d) Both (a) and (b) are false.
Q.4.
Analogous structures are a result of :- …[AIPMT-2016]
25%
a) Divergent evolution
75%
b) Convergent evolution
0%
c) Shared ancestry
0%
d) Stabilizing selection
Q.5.
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called …[NEET 2013]
50%
a) Natural selection
0%
b) Convergent evolution
0%
c) Non-random evolution
50%
d) Adaptive radiation
Q.6.
The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by…[NEET 2013]
75%
a) Random mating
0%
b) Lack of migration
0%
c) Lack of mutations
25%
d) Lack of random mating
Q.7.
According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to …[NEET 2013]
33%
a) Intraspecific competition.
67%
b) Interspecific competition.
0%
c) Competition within closely related species.
0%
d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
Q.8.
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of …[NEET 2013]
67%
a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
0%
b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
33%
c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
0%
d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
Q.9.
Genetic drift operates in :- …[NEET 2016]
0%
a) Non-reproductive population
33%
b) Slow reproductive population
33%
c) Small isolated population
33%
d) Large isolated population
Q.10.
In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by :- …[NEET 2016]
0%
a) pq
0%
b) q2
33%
c) p2
67%
d) 2pq
Q.11.
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is :- …[NEET 2016]
0%
a) Ramapithecu s→ Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus
33%
b) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
33%
c) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
33%
d) Ramapithecus → Australopithecu s →Homo habilis → Homo erectus
Q.12.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ? …[NEET 2016] I. Formation of protobionts II. Synthesis of organic monomers III. Synthesis of organic polymers IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
0%
a) II, III, I, IV
67%
b) II, III, IV, I
0%
c) I, II, III, IV
33%
d) I, III, II, IV
Q.13.
The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by :- …[NEET 2016]
a) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
33%
b) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
0%
c) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one yielding higher output and the other lower output
33%
d) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
Q.15.
The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are : [ ReAIPMT 2015]
67%
a) homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
0%
b) homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
33%
c) analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
0%
d) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution
Q.16.
Which were dominant during Mesozoic era?
33%
a) Pisces.
33%
b) Birds.
0%
c) Ruling mammals.
33%
d) Ruling reptiles.
Q.17.
Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection was based on:
67%
a) Inheritance of acquired characters.
0%
b) Mutation.
33%
c) Enormous rate of reproduction in organisms, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest.
0%
d) Changes due to the use and disuse of organs.
Q.18.
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ? [NEET 2018]
0%
a) Oil content
67%
b) Cellulosic intine
33%
c) Pollenkitt
0%
d) Sporopollenin
Q.19.
Some birds as seen by Darwin at Galapagos Island, later on called as Darwin’s finches are not example of: (
0%
a) Geographical isolation.
33%
b) Homologous organs.
33%
c) Artificial selection.
33%
d) Adaptive radiation.
Q.20.
How many statements are incorrect? (i) In disruptive selection, more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve. (ii) Jawless fishes evolved around 320mya and seaweeds existed around 350mya. (iii) Ichthyosaurs evolved around 200mya. (iv) First cellular form of life evolved around 2bya. (v) North America joined South America and South American mammals dominated over North American mammals.
100%
a) One
0%
b) Two
0%
c) Three
0%
d) Four
Q.21.
Which of the following sets do not have homologous organs?
0%
a) Wings of mosquito and butterfly.
0%
b) Wings of butterfly and bird.
100%
c) Mouthparts of cockroach and butterfly.
0%
d) none of these
Q.22.
Darwin in his “Natural selection theory” did not believe in any role of which of the following in organic evolution:
33%
a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies.
67%
b) Survival of the fittest.
0%
c) Struggle for existence.
0%
d) Discontinuous variations.
Q.23.
Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
50%
a) Perfection of hand for tool making.
0%
b) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food.
0%
c) Loss of tail.
50%
d) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour
Q.24.
Fossils are most commonly preserved in:
0%
a) Metamorphic rocks.
0%
b) Igneous rocks.
100%
c) Sedimentary rocks.
0%
d) Any type of rock.
Q.25.
A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the:
0%
a) Loss of genetic variability.
100%
b) Tendency towards assertive mating.
0%
c) Reduced gene flow.
0%
d) none of above
Q.26.
When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed as:
100%
a) Microevolution.
0%
b) Co – evolution.
0%
c) Convergent evolution.
0%
d) Adaptive radiation.
Q.27.
The theory of spontaneous generation stated that, the life:
0%
a) Arose from the living form only.
100%
b) Can arise from living and non – living form
0%
c) Can arise from non – living form.
0%
d) Arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non – living.
Q.28.
Read the following features: (i) They were fruit eaters. (ii) Lived in North Asian grasslands. (iii) They walked upright. (iv) They hunted with stone weapons. (v) Probably they existed around 15mya. How many of the following are correct regarding Australopithecus?
0%
a) One
0%
b) Two.
0%
c) Three
0%
d) Four
Q.29.
How many of the following given below are examples of homologous organs? (i) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita. (ii) Wings of bat and flippers of seal. (iii) Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals. (iv) Flippers of penguin and flippers of dolphin. (v) Brain of fish and brain of frog.
0%
a) One
0%
b) Two
0%
c) Three
0%
d) Four
Q.30.
First time bipedal locomotion was present in:
0%
a) Australopithecus.
0%
b) Homo habilis.
0%
c) Homo erectus.
0%
d) Dryopithecus
Q.31.
One of the following is not true regarding biological evolution. Identify the wrong one:
0%
a) Evolution through natural selection might have started when cellular forms with difference in metabolic capacity originated.
0%
b) Rate of appearance of new forms is linked to life span and life cycle of organisms.
0%
c) Speciation occurs due to the accumulation of acquired characters.
0%
d) Animals that are better adapted have more resource utilisation and they leave more number of progeny.
Q.32.
Which of the following could evolve by the time of 500mya?
0%
a) Jawless fishes.
0%
b) Invertebrates.
0%
c) Sea weeds.
0%
d) Lobefins.
Q.33.
Which of the following is not Australian marsupial?
0%
a) Spotted cuscus.
0%
b) Bobcat.
0%
c) Sugar glider.
0%
d) Koala.
Q.34.
Which of the following isotopes is most dangerous to Homo sapiens?
0%
a) Phosphorus-32.
0%
b) Strontium-90.
0%
c) Caesium-137.
0%
d) Iodine-131.
Q.35.
Doubis in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape man. It is:
0%
a) Sinanthropuspekinensis.
0%
b) Homo erectus
0%
c) Homo rhodesiensis.
0%
d) Homo spisaens.
Q.36.
Origin of Ginkgos and conifers took place at:
0%
a) Devonian period
0%
b) Triassic period.
0%
c) Cretaceous period.
0%
d) Permian period.
Q.37.
Fossil discovered in 1891 in Java around 1.5mya with 900cc brain capacity and probably ate meat. These features are associated with:
0%
a) Homo erectus.
0%
b) Homo habilis
0%
c) Neanderthal man.
0%
d) Australopithecus.
Q.38.
Which of the following statement is wrong?
0%
a) The first mammals were shrews.
0%
b) The fauna of North America overrode the mammals of South America.
0%
c) Continental drift caused Australian mammals to survive because of lack of competition
0%
d) The fossils of first mammals are small sized.
Q.39.
Gnetales evolved from:
0%
a) Psilophyton
0%
b) Rhynia type plants.
0%
c) Tracheophyta ancestors.
0%
d) Chlorophyte ancestors
Q.40.
Which of the following is not on the same lineage?
0%
a) Herbaceous lycopods.
0%
b) Arborescentlycopods.
0%
c) Zosterophyllum.
0%
d) Sphenopsida.
Q.41.
Birds are glorified reptiles that have evolved along dinosaur line. Which group of living reptiles is most closely related to birds? (
0%
a) Pteranodon.
0%
b) Tautaras.
0%
c) Crocodiles.
0%
d) Turtles.
Q.42.
Small groups of persons leave the population and find new settlement with changed characteristics. It is called:
0%
a) Bottleneck effect.
0%
b) Founder’s effect.
0%
c) Non – random mating.
0%
d) Parallelism.
Q.43.
Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because:
0%
a) High degree of environmental pollution.
0%
b) A very high amount of oxygen at the atmosphere.
0%
c) Very high atmospheric temperature.
0%
d) Absence of raw materials.
Q.44.
Assertion: Theory of biogenesis explains that life arises from pre existing life. Reason: Louis Pasteur finally disapproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life.
0%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
0%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.45.
The first organisms were:
0%
a) Chemoautotrophs
0%
b) Chemoheterotrophs.
0%
c) Autotrophs.
0%
d) Eukaryotes.
Q.46.
Which of the following statements are not correct? (i) Lion and leopard show convergent evolution. (ii) Cryptic camouflage is seen in Bistonbetularia. (iii) Natural selection is responsible for extinction of dinosaurs. (iv) Homo habilis and Homo erectus are closely related.
0%
a) (i) and (ii) are wrong.
0%
b) (ii) and (iii) are wrong.
0%
c) (i) and (iii) are wrong.
0%
d) (ii) and (iv) are wrong.
Q.47.
Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?
0%
a) Pecking man → Homo sapiens → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man.
0%
b) Pecking man → Handy man → Neanderthal man → Cro – Magnon man.
0%
c) Handy man → Pecking man → Neanderthal man → Cro – Magnon man.
0%
d) Pecking man → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens → Heidelberg man.
Q.48.
Who disproved the theory of abiogenesis at first?
0%
a) Lamarck.
0%
b) Spallanzani.
0%
c) F. Redi.
0%
d) Pasteur.
Q.49.
Select the correct statement?
0%
a) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
0%
b) Natural selection and genetic variations are two main key points of Darwinian theory of evolution.
0%
c) Adaptive ability is always inherited.
0%
d) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf are examples of homology.
Q.50.
In the case of peppered moth (Bistonbetularia) the black coloured form became dominant over the light coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of:
0%
a) Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected.
0%
b) Appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight.
0%
c) Protective mimicry.
0%
d) Inheritance of darker colour characters acquired due to the darker environment.
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