Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
67%
a) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area.
0%
b) The lighter form of moth has no selective advantage either in polluted area or non – polluted area.
33%
c) Melanism is a pollution generated feature.
0%
d) The true black melanic forms arose by a recurring random mutation.
Q.2.
The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs and other phenotypic characters. This is known by which law?
50%
a) Cope’s Law.
0%
b) Dollo’s Law.
50%
c) Allen’s Law.
0%
d) Bergmann’s Law.
Q.3.
Fossilisedfaeces of extinct animals known as:
0%
a) Coprolites.
50%
b) Moulds.
50%
c) Petrification.
0%
d) Gastroliths.
Q.4.
The book "Origin of Species" was written by Charles Darwin in:
100%
a) 1859.
0%
b) 1885.
0%
c) 1883.
0%
d) 1897.
Q.5.
The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is:
33%
a) Insects.
0%
b) Protozoa
67%
c) Crustacean
0%
d) Amphibia.
Q.6.
The embryological support for evolution was disproved by whose keen observations?
50%
a) Karl Ernst Von Baer
50%
b) Ernst Haeckel
0%
c) Charles Darwin.
0%
d) Alfred Wallace.
Q.7.
Which of the following is from the same lineage as that of Tyrannosaurus?
20%
a) Triceratops
20%
b) Stegosaurus.
60%
c) Brachiosaurus
0%
d) Pteranodon.
Q.8.
Evolution is not
0%
a) a stochastic process.
50%
b) Based on chance events in nature
0%
c) Based on chance mutation in the organisms
50%
d) Directed process in the sense of determinism
Q.9.
If in a given population number of individuals with dominant phenotype are 60% what will be the number of heterozygote in that population:
50%
a) Around 23%
50%
b) Around 46%
0%
c) 26%.
0%
d) 25%.
Q.10.
Sauropsida gave rise to:
67%
a) Turtles.
33%
b) Mammals.
0%
c) Gnetales.
0%
d) Ginkgo's.
Q.11.
The man like primates walked in eastern Africa around 3-4mya. This belief was supported by:
100%
a) Hominid features of bones discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.
0%
b) Hominid features of bones discovered in Whole Africa.
0%
c) Hominid features of bones discovered in Peru
0%
d) Hominid features of bones discovered in Australia.
Q.12.
Lederberg’s replica plating experiments in E coli bacteria using antibiotic penicillin proved that:
100%
a) Antibiotics can kill bacteria.
0%
b) Evolution is a slow process.
0%
c) Evolution takes place in microbes also.
0%
d) Mutations are pre adaptive.
Q.13.
Pre historic cave arts, orthognathous face, 1.8m tall, well built body and domestication of animals are related to:
100%
a) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis.
0%
b) Homo habilis.
0%
c) Homo sapien sapiens.
0%
d) Homo sapienfossilis.
Q.14.
Most recent man found as fossil was:
50%
a) Java man.
0%
b) Peking man.
50%
c) Cro – Magnon man.
0%
d) Heidelberg man.
Q.15.
Assertion: Due to bottle neck effect, among the survivors certain alleles may be over – represented, some may be under – represented and some alleles may be totally eliminated. Reason: The path of extinction of a species cannot be reversed due to bottle neck effect.
100%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
0%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
0%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.16.
The earliest fossil form, in the phylogeny of horse is:
0%
a) Eqqus.
100%
b) Mesohippus.
0%
c) Eohippus.
0%
d) Merychippus.
Q.17.
Which of the following statements is correct?
100%
a) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals.
0%
b) Stem cells are specialised cells.
0%
c) Ontogeny repeats Phylogeny.
0%
d) All plant and animal cells are Totipotent.
Q.18.
Closest primate to man is:
0%
a) Gorilla.
100%
b) Rhesus monkey.
0%
c) Rhesus monkey.
0%
d) Lemur.
Q.19.
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wings of a bird?
100%
a) Flipper of a whale.
0%
b) Dorsal fin of a shark.
0%
c) Hind limbs of a rabbit.
0%
d) Wings of a moth.
Q.20.
Mammals evolved from:
100%
a) Therapsids.
0%
b) Sauropsida.
0%
c) Thecodont
0%
d) Tuataras
Q.21.
Which of the following does not hold true for Australopithecus?
0%
a) Existed 2mya.
100%
b) Probably lived in East African grasslands.
0%
c) They hunted with stone weapons
0%
d) Ate meat.
Q.22.
The first fossil man was:
0%
a) Australopithecus.
100%
b) Homo erectus.
0%
c) Sinanthropus.
0%
d) Ginganlopithecus.
Q.23.
Homo sapiens arose in/Cradle of Modern man is:
0%
a) Europe.
100%
b) Middle east.
0%
c) Africa.
0%
d) Asia
Q.24.
Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by:
100%
a) Binocular vision.
0%
b) Chromosome number.
0%
c) Dental formula.
0%
d) Cranial capacity.
Q.25.
Read the following statements and choose the correct option: (i) Increase in melanised moths after industrialisation in Great Britain is proof for natural selection. (ii) When more individuals in a population acquire mean character value it is called disruption. (iii) Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. (iv) Genetic drift, changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generation.
100%
a) (ii) only is correct
0%
b) (iv) only is correct
0%
c) (i) and (iv) only are correct.
0%
d) (i) and (iii) only are correct.
Q.26.
Coenozoic era is the golden age of:
0%
a) Fishes and Reptiles.
100%
b) Amphibians and reptiles.
0%
c) Birds and mammals.
0%
d) Amphibians and fishes.
Q.27.
Which evolutionary force decreases the genetic diversity of a population by increasing the proportion of smaller individuals?
100%
a) Mutation.
0%
b) Gene flow
0%
c) Bottle neck effect.
0%
d) Random mating.
Q.28.
The cranial capacity of which of the following pre – historic man was almost the same as that of modern man?
100%
a) Cro – Magnon man.
0%
b) Neanderthal man.
0%
c) Java man.
0%
d) Peking man.
Q.29.
The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in a species is represented as:
100%
a) Inheritance of acquired characters
0%
b) Natural selection.
0%
c) Laws of inheritance.
0%
d) Mutation.
Q.30.
Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium cannot operate if:
100%
a) Selective mating occurs and only useful alleles get chance to appear in next generation.
0%
b) Mating is at random and all alleles get equal chance to appear in next generation.
0%
c) Mutations and gene flow are absent.
0%
d) Populations are largely sized.
Q.31.
Assertion: Gene flow increases genetic variations. Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the donor population affects allele frequency.
100%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
0%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.32.
Which of the following is correct about microspheres?
100%
a) Don’t have all properties of life.
0%
b) Composed of may protein molecules.
0%
c) Bud to form smaller microspheres.
0%
d) All of these are correct.
Q.33.
Initiating force of evolution is:
100%
a) Variation.
0%
b) Adaptation.
0%
c) Natural selection.
0%
d) Competition.
Q.34.
According to Darwin, diversity is found in Australian marsupials is due to:
100%
a) Convergent evolution.
0%
b) Divergent evolution.
0%
c) Adaptive radiation
0%
d) Co – evolution.
Q.35.
In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
100%
a) Lamarck’s principle.
0%
b) Mendelian principles.
0%
c) Biogenetic law.
0%
d) Hardy Weinberg law.
Q.36.
Assertion: Some organisms are better adapted to survive in hostile environment. Reason: Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
100%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
0%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
0%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.37.
Stanley L Miller conducted experiments before 1953 on prebiotic earth environment using special apparatus. The first surprising products were:
100%
c) Nucleotides.
0%
a) Amino acids.
0%
b) Peptides
0%
d) Simple sugars.
Q.38.
Darwin proposed ‘Natural selection’ theory to explain evolution of life forms. Which of the following is not an idea of Darwinism?
0%
a) Survival of fittest.
100%
b) Inheritance of acquired characters.
0%
c) Use and disuse of organs.
0%
d) Variations.
Q.39.
Which of the following was the novel insight of Darwin in his theory?
100%
a) Variations are heritable and make resource utilisation better for few will enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny.
0%
b) Population size will grow exponentially if everybody reproduced maximally.
0%
c) Natural resources are limited yet populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations.
0%
d) Members of populations vary in characteristics.
Q.40.
Which of the following was not flourishing in Jurassic period?
100%
a) Herbaceous lycopods.
0%
b) Sphenopsida.
0%
c) Ferns.
0%
d) Conifers.
Q.41.
Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
100%
a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
0%
b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
0%
c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
0%
d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.
Q.42.
There is an optimum wing length for a hawk of a particular size with certain mode of life in a given environment. Differences in breeding potential will eliminate those hawks with wing spans larger or smaller than this optimum length. This will occur due to:
100%
a) Progressive natural selection.
0%
b) Disruptive natural selection.
0%
c) Stabilizing natural selection.
0%
d) Diversifying selection.
Q.43.
Identify the correct statement about human evolution:
0%
a) Proconsuls gave rise to the ancestors of chimpanzee and gorilla in Oligocene epoch.
0%
b) Skill full man/Tool maker was the transition man with a cranial capacity of 650 – 800cc.
100%
c) Fossils of Java ape man discovered from Pleistocene rocks of Central Java in 1981.
0%
d) Homo sapiens fossilis or cave artists is the first direct ancestor towards modern man.
Q.44.
How was Mendel's work ultimately reconciled with Darwin's theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
100%
a) Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations, rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them.
0%
b) Mendel's theory was replaced by the mutation theory.
0%
c) It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to recombination, rather than mutation.
0%
d) a and c.
Q.45.
Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?
100%
a) Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle
0%
b) It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory.
0%
c) Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses.
0%
d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.
Q.46.
Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?
100%
a) Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
0%
b) Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
0%
c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual's ability to survive and reproduce.
0%
d) a and b.
Q.47.
The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck's theory was wrong was _____.
100%
a) Weismann
0%
b) Haeckel
0%
c) Darwin
0%
d) Wallace
Q.48.
Microevolution takes place due to
100%
a) somatogenic variation
0%
b) blastogenic variation
0%
c) continuous variation
0%
d) Successive variation
Q.49.
Which of the following is not an example of micro evolutionary change?
100%
a) The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution.
0%
b) Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics.
0%
c) The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50.
0%
d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.
Q.50.
The surface temperature of the sun is ______.
100%
a) 6000o C
0%
b) 1000o C
0%
c) 10,000o C
0%
d) 9000o C
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