Q.1.
Identify the correct chronological sequence of periods of Mesozoic era:
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0%
a) Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic → Jurassic → Cretaceous.
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0%
b) Cretaceous → Permian → Jurassic → Triassic → Carboniferous.
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100%
c) Cretaceous → Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic → Jurassic.
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0%
d) Carboniferous → Jurassic → Permian → Triassic → Cretaceous.
Q.2.
Which of the following is not true?
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40%
a) Small sized reptiles of dinosaurs of that era still exist today
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20%
b) Tyrannosaurs rex was about 20 feet in height and had huge some dagger like teeth.
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0%
c) Dinosaur extinct, a possible reason may be most of them has evolved into birds
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40%
d) Giant ferns fell to form coal deposits very fast
Q.3.
The eye of the octopus and mammals, this example does not hold similarity with which of the following examples?
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50%
a) Wings of butterfly and birds.
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50%
b) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins.
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0%
c) Brains of vertebrates.
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0%
d) Both A and B.
Q.4.
Oparin of…… and Haldane of ….. proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre existing …………
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25%
a) Russia, England, non-living inorganic molecules
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0%
b) England, Russia, living organic matter.
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75%
c) Russia, England, non-living organic molecules.
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0%
d) England, Russia, life.
Q.5.
Which of the following is not true about Big Bang theory?
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20%
a) A singular huge explosion.
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20%
b) Universe expanded and temperature came down
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60%
c) Hydrogen and Helium were destroyed along with this expansion.
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0%
d) The gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
Q.6.
In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was the temperature at which this flask was kept?
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50%
a) 800°C
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25%
b) 1200°C
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25%
c) 200°C
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0%
d) 400°C
Q.7.
Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?
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25%
a) There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution.
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25%
b) humans are unique, a totally new type of organism.
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0%
c) progress is nature's religion.
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50%
d) Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages.
Q.8.
Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
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50%
a) If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to particular pathogens, like viruses.
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50%
b) All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the gradual build up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time.
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0%
c) Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in the population over time.
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0%
d) All of the above.
Q.9.
Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
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20%
c) Humans and many insect species have eyes.
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0%
a) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians.
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0%
b) The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is unknown in any other group.
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80%
d) All of the above.
Q.10.
What is ethnobotany ?
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50%
a) Relationship between primitive plants and people
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25%
b) Study to soil
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25%
c) Cultivation of flower yielding plants
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0%
d) Use of plants and their parts
Q.11.
Parallelism is ______.
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25%
a) adaptive divergence
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50%
b) adaptive convergence
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25%
c) adaptive convergence of far off species
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0%
d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups
Q.12.
‘Piltdown man’ is
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0%
a) Hemohabilis
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25%
b) Eoanthropus
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50%
c) Homo sapiens
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25%
d) Pithecanthropine
Q.13.
Which of the following is correct match regarding cranial capacity and location of respective fossil.
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67%
a) Australopithecus – Africa (450 600 CC)
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33%
b) Java man – Germany (800 CC)
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0%
c) Neanderthal – Africa (500–600 CC)
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0%
d) Homo sapiens – South east Asia
Q.14.
. The most recent in human evolution is ______.
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25%
a) mesolithic
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0%
b) neolithic
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50%
c) upperpalaeolithic
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25%
d) middle palaeolithic
Q.15.
Who gave evolutionary concept of determinants ?
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33%
a) Dobzhansky
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33%
b) Wright
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33%
c) Weismann
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0%
d) Lamarck
Q.16.
The age of rock is calculated on the basis of ______.
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a) types of fossils present
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25%
b) number of strata present
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75%
c) amount of uranium present
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0%
d) none above
Q.17.
A living connecting link which provides evidence for organic evolution is ______.
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50%
a) Archeopteryx between reptiles and mammals
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25%
b) lung fish between pisces and reptiles
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25%
c) duck billed platypus between reptiles and mammals
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0%
d) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
Q.18.
The era called ‘age of prokaryotic microbes’ is ______.
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40%
a) archaezoic
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0%
b) precambrian
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40%
c) phaenerozoic
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20%
d) proterizoic
Q.19.
According to our reading, how did George Cuvier account for extinctions in nature?
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50%
a) Extinctions never occur--there are unexplored parts of the globe where organisms that appear to have gone extinct may still live.
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50%
b) Extinctions occur when the slow adaptation of organisms over time to their environment is not quick enough to help them respond to changing conditions.
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0%
c) Extinctions occur at random, they do not reflect God's will.
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0%
d) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events.
Q.20.
The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was ____. .
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25%
a) Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia
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0%
b) Homo erectus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens.
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25%
c) Homo erectus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not.
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50%
d) The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens
Q.21.
In 1850s, before industrialisation, it was observed that there were more white winged moths on trees than dark winged moths. But the proportion was reversed (There were more dark winged moths in the same area) in.........
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0%
a) 1920.
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50%
b) 1935.
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0%
c) 1928.
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50%
d) 1865.
Q.22.
Read the following statements: (i) Coelacanths can be considered as ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders. (ii) Darwin’s finches are examples of adaptive radiation. (iii) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of different species from a common ancestor. (iv) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of divergent evolution. How many of the above statements are wrong?
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50%
a) Two.
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0%
b) One.
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50%
c) Three
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0%
d) Four
Q.23.
Assertion: Genetic drift is an evolutionary force. Reason: Genetic drift occurs in all types of population but it is markedly visible in large population.
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25%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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25%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
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25%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
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25%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.24.
Which of the following has homologous organs?
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25%
a) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo and trunk of elephant.
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25%
b) Wings of insect, birds and bat.
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0%
c) Hindlimbs of grasshopper, horse and bat.
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50%
d) Mouth parts of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee.
Q.25.
Assertion: Disruptive selection is also known as centripetal selection. Reason: Darwin’s finches are good examples of centripetal selection.
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50%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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0%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
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50%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
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0%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.26.
The idea of natural selection as the fundamental process of evolutionary changes was reached by:
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75%
a) Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace in 1900
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0%
b) Charles Darwin in 1866.
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0%
c) Alfred Russel Wallace in 1901.
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25%
d) Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace in 1859.
Q.27.
The theory of special creation was not objected by which of the following statements?
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67%
a) Existing life forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also with life forms that existed millions of years ago.
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0%
b) Many life forms do not exist now.
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0%
c) There has been gradual evolution of life forms.
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33%
d) The Earth was about 4000 years ago.
Q.28.
Tyrannosaurs were not present with which of the following Dinosaurs?
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25%
a) Triceratops.
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75%
b) Archaeopteryx.
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0%
c) Pteranodon.
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0%
d) Brachiosaurus.
Q.29.
Which of the following is not extinct?
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33%
a) Pelycosaurs.
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0%
b) Therapsids.
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33%
c) Thecodont reptiles.
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33%
d) Sphenopsida.
Q.30.
With brain size of 1400cc, lived in near east and central Asia in between 100000 to 40000 years back, dead body burial, use of caves or hides to protect their body:
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25%
a) Homo erectus.
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25%
b) Homo habilis.
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25%
c) Neanderthal man.
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25%
d) Australopithecus.
Q.31.
Which period is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
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33%
a) Precambrian
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33%
b) Phanerozoic.
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33%
c) Archean.
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0%
d) Proterozoic.
Q.32.
Which of the following is true regarding early earth?
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33%
a) Earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion years back.
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67%
b) The atmosphere of early earth was full of water vapour.
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0%
c) The surface of earth was covered by water vapour, methane and carbon dioxide, the three compounds, formed from molten mass.
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0%
d) The UV rays from the sun broke up water into hydrogen and oxygen and lighter oxygen escaped.
Q.33.
The correct sequence of stages in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens), is:
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33%
a) Homo erectus, Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon man, modern man.
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33%
b) Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon man, modern man
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0%
c) Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, Cro-Magnon man, Homo erectus, modern man
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33%
d) Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon, Homo erectus, modern man
Q.34.
The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from earth about:
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a) 20mya.
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33%
b) 40mya.
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67%
c) 45mya.
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0%
d) 65mya.
Q.35.
Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to
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33%
a) Lamarck's theory
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0%
b) Mendel worked on garden peas
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33%
c) Darwinism
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33%
d) Neo-Darwinism
Q.36.
Human being belongs to the species of_____.
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0%
a) Homo erectus
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67%
b) Homo habillis
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33%
c) Homo sapiens
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0%
d) Hominidae
Q.37.
What's the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
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33%
a) Sexual selection occurs during sex.
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0%
b) Natural selection is a type of sexual selection.
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33%
c) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection.
-
33%
d) Sexual selection occurs within demes, natural selection does not
Q.38.
What's the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
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33%
a) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
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33%
b) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
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33%
c) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
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0%
d) There is no difference.
Q.39.
Why is similarity misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary relationships?
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67%
a) Organisms that look alike may be very distantly related to one another.
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33%
b) Similarities between two species may be due to common descent, without indicating how closely the two are related to one another.
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0%
c) A and B only.
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0%
d) The presence of a shared derived character state is often misleading when it comes to inferring relationships between species .
Q.40.
The diagram represents Miller experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling.
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33%
a) A – electrodes, B – NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, C – cold water, D – Vacuum, E – U trap
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33%
b) A – electrodes, B – NH4 + H2 + CO2 + CH3, C – hot water, D – Vacuum, E – U trap
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33%
c) A – electrodes, B – NH3 + H2O, C – hot water, D – tap, E – U trap
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0%
d) A – electrodes, B – NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, C – steam, D – Vacuum, E – U trap
Q.41.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
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33%
a) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
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67%
b) phylogeny repeats ontogeny
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0%
c) no two living organisms are alike
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0%
d) the favourable acquired characters are inherited
Q.42.
Genetic drift occurs when few individuals of a colonize, the phenomenon is
-
33%
a) bottleneck effect
-
33%
b) assortative mating
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0%
c) founder’s effect
-
33%
d) random mating
Q.43.
A human species who were more intelligent than the present human beings
-
100%
a) Ramapethicus
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0%
b) Australopithicusafricanus
-
0%
c) Homo erectus
-
0%
d) Homo fossilis
Q.44.
Leakey and Leakey discovered the fossils of ______.
-
67%
a) apeman
-
0%
b) erect man
-
33%
c) Peking man
-
0%
d) the tool maker
Q.45.
Who was the first civilized man ?
-
67%
a) Cro-magnon man
-
33%
b) Neanderthal man
-
0%
c) Java ape man
-
0%
d) Peking man
Q.46.
Human evolution actually started in ______.
-
67%
a) France
-
33%
b) America
-
0%
c) Central Asia
-
0%
d) Africa
Q.47.
Peking man is known as:
-
33%
a) Homo sapiens
-
0%
b) Pithecanthropus
-
33%
c) Sinanthropus
-
33%
d) None of these
Q.48.
Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by:
-
33%
a) Ability to defend itself.
-
33%
b) Strategy to obtain food.
-
0%
c) Number of offsprings.
-
33%
d) Dominance over other individuals.
Q.49.
Assertion: Darwinian fitness is reproductive fitness. Reason: According to Darwin, fitness depends upon a large discontinuous variations which are directionless.
-
33%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
-
33%
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
-
0%
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
-
33%
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Q.50.
Which sequence is correct in the evolution of history of man?
-
25%
a) Pliopithecus → Proconsul → Dryopithecus → Oreopithecus → Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → early Homo sapiens → Neanderthal → CroMagnon → Modern man.
-
0%
b) Proconsul → Pliopithecus → Dryopithecus → Ramapithecus → Oreopithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → early Homo sapiens → CroMagnon → Modern man.
-
75%
c) Dryopithecus → Ramapithecus → Oreopithecus → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → early Homo sapiens → Modern man.
-
0%
d) Pliopithecus → Proconsul → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → early Homo sapiens → CroMagnon → Modern man.