NEET Biology MCQ - Evolution Mcq - Quiz-18 Solution

Q.1.

Which is known as “The living laboratory of evolution”?

73%
a) Galapagos islands.
14%
b) Western Ghats
9%
c) Mediterranean sea.
5%
d) Atlantic forest

Explanation

Q.2.

Which of the following is distantly related among each other?

54%
a) Crocodiles.
0%
b) Snakes.
31%
c) Tuataras.
15%
d) Turtles.

Explanation

Q.3.

Pick up the correct match

I. Core of the earth	A. Archaeozoic era
II. Life originated	B. Fe-Ni
III. Stromatolites	C. Inter-micromolecular assembly
IV. TMC is an example	D. Photosynthesizing algae

57%
a) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
21%
b) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
21%
c) I – B, II – D, III – C, IV – A
0%
d) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C

Explanation

Q.4.

Urey and Miller in their experiment used a mixture of gases corresponding to primitive earth. These were ______.

14%
a) C3, NH3, H2, CO2
0%
b) O2, NH3, CH4, H2
43%
c) NH3, CH4, H2O, CO2
43%
d) CH4 NH3, H2, H2O

Explanation

Q.5.

Precipitation test gives evidence from ______.

36%
a) comparative embryology
14%
b) comparative anatomy
29%
c) comparative serology
21%
d) none above

Explanation

Q.6.

The evolution of genera ‘Homo’ occured in

46%
a) pleistocene
23%
b) pliocene
31%
c) miocene
0%
d) oilgocene

Explanation

Q.7.

Given : 1 = natural selection ; 2 = variations and their inheritance ; 3 = survival of the fittest ; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism, which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species ?

15%
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
54%
b) 2, 3, 1, 4
8%
c) 3, 4, 1, 2
23%
d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation

Q.8.

Cosmozoic theory was given by ______.

8%
a) Darwin
23%
b) Richter
38%
c) Aristotle
31%
d) Von Baer

Explanation

Q.9.

Closest primate to man is ______.

25%
a) gorilla
50%
b) rhesus monkey
17%
c) orangutan
8%
d) lemur

Explanation

Q.10.

Retrogressive evolution is shown by ______.

42%
a) man
25%
b) birds
25%
c) tunicates
8%
d) fish

Explanation

Q.11.

The tracking of evolutionary history of organisms is ______.

0%
a) ontogeny
92%
b) phylogeny
0%
c) analogy
8%
d) homology

Explanation

Q.12.

Which of the following cannot determine phylogenetic relationships ?

36%
a) Physiology
18%
b) Morphology
36%
c) Biogeography
9%
d) Embryology

Explanation

Q.13.

According to abiogenesis life originate from ______.

67%
a) non-living matter
25%
b) pre-exiting life
0%
c) chemicals
8%
d) extra-terrestrial matter

Explanation

Q.14.

How much temperature was used for the gases to react ?

8%
a) 10o C
8%
b) 130o C
50%
c) 1000o C
33%
d) 50o C

Explanation

Q.15.

The primitive cell-like colloidal particles capable of growth and division were ______.

23%
a) prokaryotes
46%
b) coacervates
15%
c) eobionts
15%
d) chemoautotrophs

Explanation

Q.16.

Which of the following is not an example of a macro evolutionary process?

33%
a) One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time.
33%
b) The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in birds and in insects).
17%
c) As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct.
17%
d) Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%.

Explanation

Q.17.

By studying analogous structures we look for ______.

50%
a) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.
33%
b) similarities in appearance but differences in functions.
17%
c) Similarities in organ structure.
0%
d) Similarities in cell make up.

Explanation

Q.18.

Hardy – Weinberg principle of zero evolution is based on:

64%
a) Genetic equilibrium.
7%
b) Random mating.
7%
c) No migration.
21%
d) All of the above.

Explanation

Q.19.

To Cuvier, the difference in fossils from different strata was evidences for:

20%
a) Divine creations.
30%
b) Evolution by natural selection.
30%
c) Local catastrophic events.
20%
d) Continental drifts.

Explanation

Q.20.

The age of fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is:

36%
a) 2.5 × 106 years back.
9%
b) 50 × 106 years back.
45%
c) 25 × 106 years back.
9%
d) 75 × 106 years back.

Explanation

Q.21.

Organic compounds first evolved in earth required for origin of life were:

58%
a) Proteins and amino acids.
42%
b) Proteins and nucleic acids.
0%
c) Urea and amino acids.
0%
d) Urea and nucleic acids.

Explanation

Q.22.

Match the following:

Column A	Column B
a. De Vries	Genetic equilibrium
b. Darwin	Population theory
c. Lamarck	Inheritance of acquired characters
d. H. Weinberg	Theory of mutation
e. Malthus	Co – proposer of natural selection
f. Wallace	Natural selection

20%
a) a=6, b=5, c=3, d=2, e=1, f=4
20%
b) a=5, b=6, c=3, d=2, e=1, f=4
20%
c) a=4, b=6, c=3, d=2, e=1, f=5
40%
d) a=4, b=6, c=3, d=1, e=2, f=5

Explanation

Q.23.

Long neck was the morphological character of which of the following dinosaurs?

27%
a) Triceratops.
36%
b) Tyrannosaurus.
9%
c) Stegosaurus.
27%
d) Brachiosaurus.

Explanation

Q.24.

Which of the following placental mammals appears to be similar to a corresponding marsupial NUMBAT?

45%
a) Anteater.
36%
b) Bobcat
9%
c) Mole.
9%
d) Wolf.

Explanation

Q.25.

Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

27%
a) large population size
36%
b) highly genetically variable individuals
36%
c) interbreeding within this population
0%
d) constant low mutation rate.

Explanation

Q.26.

According to theory of special creation which one is wrong?

20%
a) All living organisms were created as such.
0%
b) Diversity was same since the creation.
30%
c) Diversity will increase as the changes in the environment come.
50%
d) The Earth is about 4000 years ago.

Explanation

Q.27.

Speciation of sympatric species is due to:

33%
a) geographic isolation.
33%
b) reproductive isolation.
33%
c) isolation/separation.
0%
d) migration.

Explanation

Q.28.

Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown by_____.

20%
a) living fossils
50%
b) comparative embryology
30%
c) phylogenetic trees
0%
d) two fossil layers

Explanation

Q.29.

The utilization of elements and compounds in nature generation theory because ______.

30%
a) life cycles
30%
b) cyclic pathway
30%
c) material cycles
10%
d) recycling

Explanation

Q.30.

Appearance of facial hair in some people is an example of

20%
a) mongolism
0%
b) analogous organs
40%
c) atavism
40%
d) all above

Explanation

Q.31.

The Jurassic period belongs to the ............ era.

10%
a) proterozoic
10%
b) archezoic
80%
c) mesozoic
0%
d) Cenozoic

Explanation

Q.32.

Coacervates are

27%
a) colloidal droplets
0%
b) contain nucleoprotein
64%
c) (A) and (B)
9%
d) protobiont

Explanation

Q.33.

It is not a true fossil.

0%
a) Placoderm
40%
b) Limulus
40%
c) Archeopteryx
20%
d) Therapsid

Explanation

Q.34.

“Survival of fittest” was used by:

40%
a) Herbert Spencer.
50%
b) Charles Darwin.
0%
c) Oparin.
10%
d) Wallace.

Explanation

Q.35.

An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of:

40%
a) Homologous and analogous organs.
30%
b) Homologous and vestigial organs.
20%
c) Analogous and vestigial organs
10%
d) Homologous organs only.

Explanation

Q.36.

If a population has dominant phenotype in 1600 individuals out of 2000 then calculate the frequency of heterozygote.

12%
a) 494
50%
b) 256
12%
c) 128
25%
d) 356

Explanation

Q.37.

Triceratops was not present with which of the following Dinosaurs?

12%
a) Stegosaurus.
0%
b) Tyrannosaurus.
75%
c) Both A and B.
12%
d) Pteranodon

Explanation

Q.38.

Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in ______.

50%
a) atmosphere
25%
b) fossils
12%
c) ocean beds
12%
d) rocks

Explanation

Q.39.

The stage for the evolution of autotrophs was set with the evolution of ______.

50%
a) RNA
12%
b) DNA
12%
c) ozone
25%
d) chlorophyll

Explanation

Q.40.

The first man to use fire was ______.

50%
a) neanderthal man
12%
b) Homo erectus
25%
c) cro-magnon man
12%
d) Australopithecus

Explanation

Q.41.

Which of these is not a living fossil?

38%
a) Archaeopteryx
50%
b) Duck-billed platypus
0%
c) Lungfish
12%
d) Frog

Explanation

Q.42.

Alternative forms of a gene are called _____________.

12%
a) loci
12%
b) multiples
12%
c) Chromosomes
62%
d) Alleles

Explanation

Q.43.

Which of the following is not Australian marsupial?

25%
a) )Numbat.
38%
b) Lemur.
38%
c) Flying Phalanger.
0%
d) Tasmanian tiger cat.

Explanation

Q.44.

If the population of a place has a certain character which is recessive in as many as 100 individuals. Find the value of q if total number of individuals is 1000:

25%
a) 1
12%
b) 5
38%
c) 3
25%
d) 10

Explanation

Q.45.

Which of the following did not evolve from Psilophyton?

0%
a) Ferns.
29%
b) Ginkgos.
43%
c) Conifers.
29%
d) Bryophytes.

Explanation

Q.46.

The flourishing period of progymnosperm is:

12%
a) Devonian.
25%
b) Silurian.
38%
c) Cretaceous.
25%
d) Permian.

Explanation

Q.47.

Largest cranial capacity was found in:

22%
a) Peking man.
44%
b) Neanderthal man.
11%
c) Java man.
22%
d) Cro – Magnon man.

Explanation

Q.48.

First form of life appeared about:

62%
a) 4.5 bya.
25%
b) 4000mya.
0%
c) 4500mya
12%
d) 3000mya.

Explanation

Q.49.

Co – evolution does not occur in case of:

12%
a) Parasitism.
12%
b) Mutualism.
38%
c) Commensalism.
38%
d) Both B and C.

Explanation

Q.50.

Darwin’s finches provide evidence of evolution from:

0%
a) Morphology.
12%
b) Anatomy.
25%
c) Biogeography.
62%
d) All of the above.

Explanation

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