Sum total of genes in a population is ... ... [ CPMT 1993 ]
21%
a) Genotype
5%
b) Karyotype
5%
c) Genetic constitution
68%
d) Gene pool
Q.2.
Continental drift explains ... ... [ AMU 2002 ]
7%
a) Mass extinctions
14%
b) Distribution of fossils on earth
29%
c) Geographical upheavals
50%
d) All the above
Q.3.
Wings of Bat, Locust and Pigeon are ... ... [ EAMCET 1999 ]
7%
a) Vestigial organs
7%
b) Exoskeletal structures
36%
c) Homologous organs
50%
d) Analogous organs
Q.4.
Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest theories were proposed by ... .. [ CPMT 2007]
75%
a) Darwin
25%
b) Lamarck
0%
c) Wallace
0%
d) None of the above
Q.5.
Planet nearest to sun is ... ... [ Har PMT 1993 ]
15%
a) Earth
0%
b) Moon
77%
c) Mercury
8%
d) Mars
Q.6.
The statement "nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution" was given by ... .... [ kerala 2000 ]
30%
a) Dobzhansk
10%
b) Darwin
50%
c) Oparin
10%
d) Hooker
Q.7.
Who was the first to the idea of fixity of species? ... .. [ kerala 2009]
25%
a) Darwin
12%
b) Lamarck
25%
c) Robert Hooke
38%
d) William Harvey
Q.8.
Hugo de Vries' contribution is .. .. [ CBSE 1992 ]
0%
a) Theory of Natural selection
90%
b) Theory of Mutations
0%
c) Law of Dominance
10%
d) Law of segregation
Q.9.
Genetic recombination occurs due to ... ... [ CPMT 2002]
36%
a) Mitosis and meiosis
36%
b) Fertilisation and mitosis
27%
c) Fertilisation and meiosis
0%
d) None of the above
Q.10.
A common means of sympatric speciation is ... .. [ DPMT 2010]
29%
a) Polyploidy
14%
b) Imposition of geographic barrier
29%
c) Spatial segregation of mating sites
29%
d) Temporal segregation of breeding season
Q.11.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is influenced by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and .. ... [ kerala 2008]
50%
a) Evolution
17%
b) Limiting factor
17%
c) Over-production
17%
d) Natural selection
Q.12.
Mesozoic era was dominated by ... ... [ CPMT 2003 ]
0%
a) Birds
10%
b) Fishes
70%
c) Reptiles
20%
d) Mammals
Q.13.
Which is correct? ... .. [ Odisha 2005 ]
27%
a) 99% of existed species are extinct
36%
b) 65% of existed species are extinct
27%
c) 40% of existed species are extinct
9%
d) 30% of existed species are extinct
Q.14.
Name the law that states 'Embryonic development of an animal repeats the embryonic stages of ancestors ... ... [ CPMT 1992 ]
50%
a) Biogenetics Law
0%
b) Anaximander's law
17%
c) Florkin's Law
33%
d) Law of Segregation
Q.15.
The idea of natural selection as fundamental process of evolutionary changes was reached ... .. [ KCET 2007]
60%
a) By Charles Darwin in 1866
0%
b) Alfred Russel Wallace in 1901
30%
c) Independently by Darwin and Russel in 1859
10%
d) Independently by Darwin and Russel in 1900
Q.16.
The term hot diluted soup was given by ... ...[ HPPMT 2007 ]
18%
a) Haldane
36%
b) Urey
27%
c) Oparin
18%
d) None of the above
Q.17.
Which one is not vestigial in humans? ... ... [ AFMC 2007 ]
22%
a) Third molar
22%
b) Coccyx
33%
c) Segmental abdominal muscles
22%
d) Finger nails
Q.18.
Hexaploid Wheat developed through ... .. [ AIIMS 1997 ]
38%
a) Hybridomas
25%
b) Chromosome doubling
12%
c) Hybridization
25%
d) Hybridization and chromosome doubling
Q.19.
Darwinian fitness of an organism is a measure of ... .. [ JKCET 2012]
57%
a) Its ability relative to others, to pass genes to the next generation
14%
b) Number of offspring it produces
14%
c) Its life span
14%
d) Its physical vigor
Q.20.
Principle of natural Selection was proposed by ... .. [ CPMT 2003]
0%
a) lamarck
14%
b) De Vries
71%
c) Darwin
14%
d) Mendel
Q.21.
A living connecting link that provides evidence of organic evolution is ..... [ CPMT 2009]
14%
a) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
86%
b) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
0%
c) Lung fishes between pisces and reptiles
0%
d) Duck - billed Platypus between reptiles and mammals
Q.22.
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as ... ... [ AFMC 2008]
14%
a) Ontogeny
43%
b) Phylogeny
14%
c) Ancestry
29%
d) Palaeontology
Q.23.
Reptilian features of Archaeopteryx is ... ..
50%
a) U -shaped furcula
17%
b) Beak
17%
c) Abdominal ribs
17%
d) Feathers
Q.24.
Which is a set of evidences of evolution ... ... [ CPMT 1991 ]
33%
a) Homologous and analogous organs
33%
b) Homologous and vestigial organs
0%
c) Analogous and vestigial organs
33%
d) All the above
Q.25.
Mutations are considered raw materials of evolution because they ... ... [ Odisha 2008]
20%
a) Cause death of organism
40%
b) Contribute to new variations
0%
c) Are stable
40%
d) Random
Q.26.
Which experiment suggest that simplest living organism could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter? ... .. [ CBSE 2005 ]
14%
a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
0%
b) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
7%
c) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
79%
d) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel
Q.27.
The sequence in evolution of horse was ... ... [ kerala 2000 ]
60%
a) Equus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus
20%
b) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
20%
c) Mesohippus, Eohippus, Merychippus, Equus
0%
d) MErychippus, Eohippus, Equus, Mesohippus
Q.28.
Who wrote the book " Genetics and Origin of Species"? ... .. [ HAr PMT 2007]
0%
a) Oparin
0%
b) Hooker
17%
c) Bobzhansky
83%
d) Darwin
Q.29.
Statement: Long neck of Giraffe is due to centripetal selection Reason: During directional selection when the mean value of phenotype coincides with new optimum environmental conditions, centripetal selection takes over ... ... [ EAMCET
92%
a) Both statement and reason are true and reason is correct answer to statement
0%
b) Only statement is true and reason is false
8%
c) Both are false
0%
d) Both are true but reason is not correct explanation of statement
Q.30.
Tachyglossus is connecting link between .. ... [ DPMT 2009]
0%
a) Reptiles and mammals
0%
b) Reptiles and birds
50%
c) Amphibians and reptiles
50%
d) Birds and mammals
Q.31.
Select the wrong pair
14%
a) Haldane → Hot dilute soup
29%
b) Oparin → Protobionts
29%
c) Spallanzani → Abiogenesis
29%
d) Sidney Walter Fox → Coacervates
Q.32.
Improved races of Pigeon developed due to .. .. [ CPMT 1994 ]
11%
a) Environmental selection
78%
b) Natural selection
11%
c) Artificial selection
0%
d) Protective selection
Q.33.
Which are not homologous? ... ... [ CPMT 2001 ]
33%
a) Fore arm of humans and fins of fishes
50%
b) Wings of bat and insects
0%
c) Fins of fishes and flippers of Whales
17%
d) Human fore arms, Bat's wings and flippers of Whale
Q.34.
Origin of first mammals occurred ... ... [ AMU 1992 ]
56%
a) 500 million yrs
44%
b) 220 million yrs
0%
c) 1600 million yrs
0%
d) Over 1600 million yrs ago
Q.35.
Species are differentiated on the basis of .. ... [ MPPMT 2007]
40%
a) Interbreeding
40%
b) Reproductive isolation
20%
c) Species diversity
0%
d) None of the above
Q.36.
Possible early source of energy was ... ... [ AIIMS 2000 ]
14%
a) Chlorophyll
29%
b) CO2
57%
c) UV radiations and lightning
0%
d) Green plants
Q.37.
Industrial melanism is an example of ... .. [ CBSE 2003 ]
0%
a) Drug resistance
83%
b) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
17%
c) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
0%
d) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
Q.38.
Stanley Miller's experiment supports ... ... [ Manipal 2005 ]
13%
a) Abiogenesis
7%
b) Biogenesis
7%
c) Pangenesis
73%
d) Chemical theory
Q.39.
New species develop due to ... ... [ CBSE 2002 ]
14%
a) Isolation and mutation
29%
b) Competition and mutation
43%
c) Isolation and variation
14%
d) Isolation and competition
Q.40.
Assertion: Natural selection is the outcome of diierece in survival and reproduction among individual that show variation in one or more traits. Reason: Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common or disappear ... ... [ AIIMS 2004 ]
67%
a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
33%
b) The Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
0%
c) Assertion is true but, Reason is false
0%
d) Assertion is false but, Reason is true
Q.41.
An example of reproductive isolation is .. .. [ JKCMEE 2007]
67%
a) Mule
33%
b) Bonellia
0%
c) Dinosaurs
0%
d) Archaeopteryx
Q.42.
Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that .. ... [ CBSE 1993]
29%
a) Darwin was correct
0%
b) Tail is an essential organs
14%
c) Mutation theory is wrong
57%
d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Q.43.
Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during ... .. [ BHU 2002 ]
33%
a) Carboniferous period
67%
b) Cretaceous period
0%
c) Jurassic period
0%
d) Devonian period
Q.44.
Analogous organs are ... ... [ PMT 2001 ]
50%
a) Wings of Bird and Butterfly
33%
b) Wings of Bird and Bat
0%
c) Limbs of Horse and Human
17%
d) Teeth of Human and Gorilla
Q.45.
Darwin's theory states that ... ... [ Pb.PMT 2002 ]
67%
a) Characters are acquired through inheritance
0%
b) Species change morphologically with time
33%
c) Nature selects organism which can adapt
0%
d) Evolution is due to effect of environment
Q.46.
Under certain conditions, scientists have got cell-like structure but without its true organization. They are called ... ... [ MPPMT 1994 ]
29%
a) Eobionts
0%
b) Protists
57%
c) Coacervates
14%
d) Microbes
Q.47.
Which is relatively most accurate method of dating of fossils? .... .. [ CBSE 2005 ]
29%
a) Radiocarbon method
43%
b) Potassium - Argon method
29%
c) Electron spin - resonance method
0%
d) Uranium - lead method
Q.48.
Which one is used for dating archaeological specimens like bones, shells and wood? .... .. [ JIPMER 2002 ]
14%
a) 3H
57%
b) 14C
14%
c) 121I
14%
d) 32P
Q.49.
Importance of survival of athe fittest as basic principle of competition in organic evolution was explained by ... .. [ JKCMEE 2007]
50%
a) Lamarck
50%
b) Darwin
0%
c) Mendel
0%
d) De Vries
Q.50.
Potential danger is population greatly reduced in number is ... .. [ JKCET 2012]
38%
a) Hardy - Weinberg disequilibrium
38%
b) Reduced gene flow
25%
c) Tendency towards assorted mating
0%
d) Loss of genetic variability
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