A Sailor's eligibility for advancement to a higher paygrade is determined by what individual?
28%
Not OPNAV 4790.2
22%
Financial Planning
11%
Not CNO and SECNAV
39%
Commanding Officer
Q.2.
A member is separated by reason of entry level performance and conduct when they have served less than how many days of continuous active duty?
0%
1306-124
33%
90 days
33%
24 years
33%
180 Days
Q.3.
A Sailor being evaluated in the same paygrade as his previous evaluation can only receive a Progressing performance evaluation under what condition?
8%
Not Conduct Questionable
23%
Enlisted service contract
23%
Two
46%
Not He received a nonjudicial punishment
Q.4.
Which of the following is considered non-chargeable leave?
0%
A CPO w/ 8 years of active service
40%
Potential for civilian employment
40%
Not Rest and Recuperation Leave
20%
Not CNO and SECNAV
Q.5.
Which of the following items is a requirement for Officer Candidate School applicants?
0%
Not Conduct Questionable
20%
Not Rest and Recuperation Leave
20%
English, math, and reading
60%
Hold a Baccalaureate degree
Q.6.
The "burden of proof" to request corrections to OMPF reside with which entity?
40%
Submitter
20%
16 months after application date
20%
Parenthood
20%
10 years
Q.7.
All of the following types of publications can be listed on bibliographies of advancement-In-rate exams, EXCEPT which one?
33%
Personal past observations
0%
A CPO w/ 8 years of active service
17%
Hold a Baccalaureate degree
50%
Personnel qualifications standards
Q.8.
As a leader, you should evaluate your worker's performance in which if the following three areas?
0%
Two
33%
Transfer the Sailor to another sea duty command in the same homeport/area
33%
24
33%
Attitude, Knowledge, and Work habits
Q.9.
To apply for the CWO program, a CPO's active duty military service should NOT exceed what maximum number of years?
25%
90 days
0%
Be an E-7 and high school grad or possess the service-accepted equivalent
50%
24 years
25%
10 years
Q.10.
What military life cycle items are discussed in a CDB?
33%
Not He received a nonjudicial punishment
0%
Commanding Officer
67%
Attitude, Knowledge, and Work habits
0%
Finances, certifications, and pre-separation counseling
Q.11.
In order for a Sailor to extend at their current command, they must have a final recommendation from which of the following individuals?
25%
None/No requirement
25%
Submitting a 1306/7, requesting to adjust the projected rotation date (PRD) to match the EAOS
0%
Commanding Officer
50%
Two
Q.12.
For FMS, Sailor's who have served in a CDCZ/ACOA greater than 90 consecutive days are awarded what max number additional points in addition to the max points already authorized?
0%
24
33%
Not 12
0%
Two
67%
E6 and below only
Q.13.
To apply for the CWO program, the applicant must meet which of the following requirements?
0%
Not Paygrade and retention recommendation
50%
None/No requirement
50%
Hold a Baccalaureate degree
0%
Be an E-7 and high school grad or possess the service-accepted equivalent
Q.14.
Detachment of individual evaluations are required to be submitted when which of the following situations occur?
0%
Not OPNAV 4790.2
12%
NAVPERS 1070/881
69%
Not When a member transfers from one UIC to another and does not change reporting seniors/ when a member is discharged
19%
Not 45
Q.15.
The least favorable discharge that can be awarded by a Special Court-Martial is known as what type?
0%
NAVPERS 1070/881
50%
Not OPNAV 4790.2
50%
Not Conduct Questionable
0%
Not Dishonorable
Q.16.
What information on an evaluation determines if it should be used for PMA computation?
17%
Not Greater than 90 days
50%
Not Paygrade and retention recommendation
17%
Not In-rate or SELRES only
17%
Not Rest and Recuperation Leave
Q.17.
A member should notify a detailer of their intent to separate at the expiration of active obligated service (EAOS) by taking what action?
0%
Commanding Officer
100%
Submitting a 1306/7, requesting to adjust the projected rotation date (PRD) to match the EAOS
0%
180 Days
0%
Not When a member transfers from one UIC to another and does not change reporting seniors/ when a member is discharged
Q.18.
When evaluating the skills and qualifications of subordinates, you should use which of the following resources?
67%
Personnel qualifications standards
0%
ESO (educational services officer)
33%
Personal past observations
0%
Peer reviews
Q.19.
The Max C-WAY quota expiration date is described by which of the following statements?
0%
Personal past observations
33%
Not Conduct Questionable
0%
A CPO w/ 8 years of active service
67%
16 months after application date
Q.20.
With regard to enlisted performance evaluations, a PIM used for what period of time?
33%
English, math, and reading
0%
Financial Planning
33%
Not Greater than 90 days
33%
Not Dishonorable
Q.21.
Documentation of Training, Education, and Qualification completion is maintained on what service record form?
25%
Career Transition Office
38%
NAVPERS 1070/605
12%
Not Dishonorable
25%
NAVPERS 1070/881
Q.22.
Sailors desiring information with regard to split tours and tour extensions should refer to which of the following MILPERSMAN articles?
0%
24 years
0%
Vacancy
100%
1306-124
0%
Not 12
Q.23.
Sailors reduced in rank from E4 to E3 by NJP for minor offenses of Article 15 of the UCMJ, are eligible for reinstatement after what minimum number of months?
0%
Not 12
0%
Not Immediately
0%
Two
100%
90 days
Q.24.
Which of the following personnel is eligible to apply for the limited duty officer program?
0%
Not Rest and Recuperation Leave
0%
English, math, and reading
0%
A CPO w/ 8 years of active service
0%
Parenthood
Q.25.
When a member on sea duty requests an extension, and it is NOT feasible due to manning excess, the detailer has what other option?
0%
Be an E-7 and high school grad or possess the service-accepted equivalent
0%
Not In-rate or SELRES only
0%
Transfer the Sailor to another sea duty command in the same homeport/area
0%
Submitting a 1306/7, requesting to adjust the projected rotation date (PRD) to match the EAOS
Q.26.
The CO has the authority to grant an extension of a Letter of Intent for what prescribed number of days?
0%
Seven
0%
45
0%
Commanding Officer
0%
10
Q.27.
When you evaluate worker performance, you should consider all of the following factors, EXCEPT which one?
0%
Peer reviews
0%
24 years
0%
Not OPNAV 4790.2
0%
NAVPERS 1070/881
Q.28.
When submitting a C-WAY application, during the 1st month of review, a sailor is eligible for which of the following options?
0%
Potential for civilian employment
0%
Not Greater than 90 days
0%
Not In-rate or SELRES only
0%
Not OPNAV 4790.2
Q.29.
What career development board topic covers the Thrift Saving Program and investments?
100%
Financial Planning
0%
Not Paygrade and retention recommendation
0%
Not Greater than 90 days
0%
Military Bearing
Q.30.
An E-4 is allowed to remain on active duty for what maximum number of years?
0%
Submitter
0%
10 years
0%
180 Days
0%
Military Bearing
Q.31.
The first departmental Career Development Board should be held for a Professional Apprenticeship Career Track Sailor within what maximum time frame of reporting to the command?
0%
Commanding Officer
0%
Peer reviews
0%
Not Immediately
0%
Not Dishonorable
Q.32.
The DoN sets requirements for advancement, but does NOT guarantee advancement. Advancement is ultimately determined by what factor?
0%
Not 45
0%
1306-124
0%
Commanding Officer
0%
Vacancy
Q.33.
For each advancement cycle, Education Service Officers should retain Navy Wide Advancement Exam Worksheets in a suspense file for what minimum number of years?
0%
Two
0%
Not Immediately
0%
100%
0%
Seven
Q.34.
Information pertaining to off-duty education and training should be obtained from what command-designated representative?
0%
Not In-rate or SELRES only
0%
Personnel qualifications standards
0%
Not Paygrade and retention recommendation
0%
ESO (educational services officer)
Q.35.
What percentage of a command's eligible sailors must be qualified in C-WAY?
0%
90 days
0%
100%
0%
10 years
0%
Submitter
Q.36.
Personnel conduct is recorded in what block of the evaluation report?
0%
E6 and below only
100%
Military Bearing
0%
NAVPERS 1070/881
0%
Not CNO and SECNAV
Q.37.
Each "A" school graduating class is granted what percentage accelerated advancement?
0%
The Following December 1st
0%
Not Greater than 90 days
0%
10
0%
24
Q.38.
The separation authority when separation by reason of Expiration of Active Obligated Service (EAOS) is what authority?
0%
Not Dishonorable
0%
Personal past observations
0%
Commanding Officer
0%
NAVPERS 1070/881
Q.39.
A periodic evaluation has what ending report date?
0%
Not Conduct Questionable
0%
Not CNO and SECNAV
0%
15th of the reporting month
0%
Potential for civilian employment
Q.40.
Page 1 of the enlisted service record is referred to by which of the following terms?Emergency data formOff-duty education recordCommand history recordEnlisted service contract
0%
Not Greater than 90 days
0%
Not In-rate or SELRES only
0%
Enlisted service contract
0%
None/No requirement
Q.41.
An E-3 advanced on the 17th of Nov should use what new time-in-rate date?
0%
Rating bibliographies and precepts
0%
The Following December 1st
0%
10
0%
Personal past observations
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